Ace the Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician Exam with Eduooz Academy’s Targeted Online Coaching
Eduooz Academy offers a specialized coaching program for the Kerala DME (Department of Medical Education) PSC Lab Technician Exam, aimed at helping lab technician aspirants secure prestigious roles in Kerala’s medical education sector. With a structured curriculum, expert-led classes, and practical exam strategies, our program provides the essential preparation needed to excel in the Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician Exam.
Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician Exam Coaching
About the Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician Exam
The Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician Exam is conducted by the Kerala Public Service Commission (PSC) to recruit lab technicians for the Department of Medical Education (DME). Qualified candidates have the opportunity to work in government medical colleges and teaching hospitals across Kerala, contributing to public health and medical education.
Eligibility Criteria for the Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician Exam
Eligibility Criteria for the Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician Exam
To be eligible for the Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician Exam, candidates typically need:
- Educational Qualification: A diploma or degree in Medical Laboratory Technology (MLT) from a recognized institution.
- Registration: Registration with the Kerala Paramedical Council may be required.
- Age Limit: Generally between 18 to 36 years, with age relaxations applicable to certain categories as per Kerala PSC rules.
Scope and Job Nature of a DME Lab Technician
Scope and Job Nature of a DME Lab Technician
Lab technicians in the Kerala DME (Department of Medical Education) hold a vital role in the state’s medical education and public health framework. As a DME Lab Technician, your responsibilities will include:
- Conducting Diagnostic Tests: Perform lab tests to assist in patient diagnosis and contribute to healthcare services in teaching hospitals.
- Supporting Medical Education: Work alongside doctors, faculty, and students in medical colleges, supporting the educational environment through practical lab work and accurate test results.
- Ensuring Quality and Safety: Adhere to strict safety protocols, quality standards, and best practices in laboratory environments within medical education facilities.
Advantages of a Career as a DME Lab Technician
Advantages of a Career as a DME Lab Technician
- Government Job Stability: Positions under Kerala DME offer job security, pensions, and benefits associated with government employment.
- Career Growth Opportunities: DME lab technicians can advance within Kerala’s healthcare and medical education sectors, allowing for long-term professional development.
- Impactful Role in Public Health and Education: Working in medical colleges and hospitals, you play an important role in supporting healthcare services and educating the next generation of medical professionals.
How to Prepare for the Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician Exam
How to Prepare for the Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician Exam
1. Understand the Exam Pattern and Syllabus
The Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician syllabus covers various scientific and practical aspects of laboratory technology. Begin by familiarizing yourself with the entire syllabus and exam pattern to plan your study strategy effectively.
2. Focus on Core Subjects
Strengthen your knowledge of core topics such as microbiology, biochemistry, and pathology, as these are fundamental areas for lab technician roles in medical education settings. Eduooz Academy provides structured lessons on these subjects, along with detailed study materials.
3. Practice with Mock Tests and Previous Papers
Mock tests are invaluable for gaining familiarity with the exam format and improving time management. Eduooz Academy offers Kerala DME PSC-specific practice tests, allowing you to test your knowledge and refine your exam techniques.
4. Review and Reinforce Key Concepts Regularly
Set aside dedicated time each week to revise what you’ve learned. Eduooz Academy’s recorded sessions and downloadable materials make it easy to revisit topics, helping you reinforce and retain key information.
5. Get Support from Expert Faculty
Our faculty are available to answer questions, clarify complex topics, and provide strategic insights to help you succeed. Personalized mentorship can significantly enhance your preparation, ensuring you’re ready for every part of the exam.
Why Choose Eduooz Academy for Kerala DHS PSC Lab Technician Exam Preparation?
Eduooz Academy’s Kerala DHS PSC Lab Technician coaching program is designed to set you up for success. Here’s why our program stands out:
- Focused Syllabus: Covers every topic required for the Kerala DHS PSC Lab Technician Exam.
- Experienced Instructors: Our faculty members are experts in lab technology and competitive exam preparation.
- Flexible Learning Options: Access recorded sessions, live classes, and downloadable study materials, all tailored for online learning convenience.
- Regular Assessments: Mock tests and quizzes to track progress and identify improvement areas.
- Affordable Pricing: Quality coaching at competitive prices, making exam preparation accessible to all aspirants.
Exam Syllabus for Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician
PATHOLOGY
Module 1 Hematology (5 Marks)
Module 1 Hematology (5 Marks)
1.1 Composition of blood, anticoagulants, blood cell count, Hematopoiesis, blood
cell, morphology - normal and abnormal, functions of blood, thin and thick smear,
staining of blood films, different stains used, demonstration of blood cells, bone
marrow smear, sickle cell preparation, LE cell preparation, leukemia,
demonstration of blood parasites.
1.2 Hemoglobin – Functions, normal and abnormal hemoglobin, estimation
methods, anemia.
1.3 PCV, ESR, blood cell indices, osmotic fragility
1.4 Blood coagulation and homeostasis, disorders of coagulation, coagulation
tests, factor analysis
Module 2 Clinical pathology (5 Marks)
Module 2 Clinical pathology - Basic techniques (5 Marks)
2.1 Urine analysis – Physical, chemical, microscopy, examination of faeces,
sputum, cerebrospinal fluid, other body fluids, semen analysis.
Module 3 Histotechnology (5 Marks)
Module 3 Histotechnology (5 Marks)
3.1 Brief introduction to histology, design of a histology laboratory, reception and
recording of specimens, basic knowledge about the various types of tissues and
characteristics that influence their processing.
3.2 Fixatives – Purpose, ideal fixatives, common and important fixatives, removal
of formalin pigment and deposits from sections, decalcification – method,
preparation of reagents used.
3.3 Microtome – Principle and maintenance of different types of microtomes,
microtome knives and types, sharpening of knives and their care.
3.4 Preparation of paraffin sections – Tissue processing, different steps,
embedding, principles and uses of vacuum and paraffin embedding, treatment of
blocks before cutting, automatic tissue processors, recognition and correction of
faults occurring in blocks and sections, storage of blocks, defects of processing
and rectification of defects.
3.5 Staining and mounting – Principles of staining, common and special stainspreparation and procedure, Immunohistochemistry – basic principles, methods,
storage of sections.
3.6 Frozen sections – Freezing microtomes – Principles, use, preparation of frozen
sections and staining, advantage of frozen sections, cryostat.
Module 4 Cytology (5 Marks)
Module 4 Cytology (5 Marks)
4.1 Important applications of cytology, collection of specimens -gynaecological
and non-gynaecological, preparation of smears, fixation, Papanicolaou staining
method, Shorr’s stain, other stains used in cytology, preparation of stains, buccal
smear- Barr body demonstration.
4.2 Fine needle aspiration cytology, concentration techniques in cytologycentrifugation, cyto-centrifugation, membrane filters, cell blocks
4.3 Liquid based cytology-monolayer preparation
Module 5 Cytogenetics (5 Marks)
Module 5 Cytogenetics (5 Marks)
5.1 Karyotyping-methods of chromosome analysis with blood and bone marrow,
banding techniques, general aspects of chromosomes, chromosome defects,
advanced methods in cytogenetics.
Module 6 Blood banking (5 Marks)
Module 6 Blood banking (5 Marks)
Theoretical aspects of blood grouping and blood banking, nature of blood cell
antigens, mode of inheritance, general characteristics, antigen- antibody concept.
6.1 ABO and Rh blood group system, other blood group systems ABO grouping
and Rh typing technique, direct and indirect Coomb’s test, compatibility testing.
6.2 Donor selection, Screening of donors, collection and storage of blood,
anticoagulants used in blood transfusion, preservation and storge of blood,
preparation of blood components and their storage
6.3 Transfusion reactions, transmission of diseases through blood transfusion,
apheresis, plasma pheresis, automation and recent developments in blood bank.
MICROBIOLOGY
Module 1 General Microbiology (6 Marks)
Module 1 General Microbiology (6 Marks)
1.1 History and scope of microbiology, laboratory safety and personal protection
1.2 Sterilization and disinfection- different methods and their applications,
biomedical waste management
1.3 Guidelines on laboratory procedures- reception, recording and handling of
specimens, cultures and laboratory wastes
1.4 Microscopes- Compound Microscope, Darkfield, Phase contrast, Fluorescent &
Electron Microscopy.
Module 2 Bacteriology (6 Marks)
Module 2 Bacteriology (6 Marks)
2.1 Morphology of bacteria, growth requirements, culture media, pH adjustment,
sterilization and storage of media, culture methods
2.2 Staining- simple, differential, special- principle, methods and application
2.3 Methods of study of bacteria- scheme of identification, study of medically
important bacteria- role in infection, important diseases, laboratory diagnosis,
microbial flora in health and diseases.
2.4 Antimicrobial susceptibility testing- antimicrobials in common use, preparation
and storage of antimicrobial discs for susceptibility testing, different methods of
testing, use of antimicrobials in the identification of bacteria.
2.5 Clinical bacteriology- sample collection, containers, collection of different
types of specimens, transportation, storage, use of transport media and
preservatives in transportation
2.6 Processing of specimens- microscopy, culture, biochemical identification,
serological identification, pathogenicity tests and antibiotic susceptibility tests.
2.7 Serological tests and rapid techniques for the diagnosis of bacterial infections.
Module 3 Parasitology (6 Marks)
Module 3 Parasitology (6 Marks)
3.1 Morphology and classification- Protozoa, helminths, common and important
diseases caused by them, details of morphology, life cycle and laboratory
diagnosis.
3.2 Clinical parasitology- collection of specimens, transportation and storage
3.3 Processing of specimens- blood smear- thin and thick for protozoan parasites,
microfilaria, stool examination for parasitic ova, larvae, their identification,
concentration methods, staining techniques.
3.4 Serological diagnosis and other rapid tests for diagnosis.
Module 4 Mycology (6 Marks)
Module 4 Mycology (6 Marks)
4.1 Introduction- classification of fungi, dimorphic fungi, common contaminant
fungi- morphology, culture characteristics and identification of fungi
4.2 common fungal diseases- cutaneous, sub-cutaneous/mucous, systemic and
opportunistic
4.3 Clinical mycology- collection of specimens and transportation
4.4 Processing of specimens- microscopy, culture media and techniques
Module 5 Virology (6 Marks)
Module 5 Virology (6 Marks)
5.1 Introduction to virology- structure, classification-DNA viruses, RNA viruses,
morphology, cultivation and identification of viruses, medically important viral
diseases.
5.2 Clinical virology- collection, transportation and storage of specimens, special
care in handling specimens.
5.3 Processing of specimens- staining, fluorescent antibody techniques, viral
isolation methods and identification of viruses, viral inclusion bodies in diagnosis.
5.4 Serological techniques in diagnosis of viral infections
BIOCHEMISTRY
Module 1 (2 Marks)
Module 1
1.1 Composition of glass, Varieties, Grades of glassware, Cleaning of
glassware.
1.2 Calibration of pipettes and other volumetric apparatus.
Module 2 (1 Marks)
Module 2
2.1 Laboratory safety- Laboratory hazards and safety, Universal safety
precautions. First aid in the laboratory
Module 3 (1 Marks)
Module 3
3.1 Grades of chemicals, Secondary standard chemicals, Storage of
chemicals.
Module 4 (1 Marks)
Module 4
4.1 Preparation and storage of distilled water, Deionized water, pyrogen
free distilled water. Evaluation of water purity.
Module 5 (1 Marks)
Module 5
5.1 Units of measurement -SI units and Non SI units.
Module 6 (1 Marks)
Module 6
6.1 Preparation of normal, molar and percentage solutions.
6.2 Dilution of solution, Interconversion of concentration- Normal, Molar, Molal
and Percentage solutions.
Module 7 (3 Marks)
Module 7
7.1 Collection, Preparation, Transportation, Processing and Disposal of biological specimens in a Clinical Biochemistry Laboratory.
7.2 Preparation and use of anticoagulants.
7.3 Urine preservation.
Module 8 (1 Marks)
Module 8
8.1 Laboratory Instruments – Principle, Use and Maintenance of
Colorimeter, Spectrophotometer, Fluorimeter, Nephelometer, Flame photometer,
Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer, Luminometers, Centrifuges, Magnetic
stirrer, Vortex mixer, pH meter.
Module 9 (1 Marks)
Module 9
9.1 Radioisotopes, Basic principles of radioactivity , Detection and
Measurement of Radioactivity ,Application of Radioactivity.
Module 10 (2 Marks)
Module 10
e 10.1 Buffer solution , Henderson Hasselbach equation
10.2 pH indicators.
10.3 Body buffer system, Respiratory and renal disturbances in acid base
balance, Anion gap, Metabolic acidosis and alkalosis, Respiratory acidosis and
alkalosis, Fluid and electrolyte balance, Osmolality, Methodology of measuring
Blood pH, PCO2 and PO2.
10.4 Physical chemistry- Osmosis, Dialysis, Donnan Membrane Equilibrium,
Viscosity, Surface tension, Properties of colloids, Emulsion,, Adsorption, Partition
coefficient
Module 11 (1 Marks)
Module 11
11.1 Digestion and Absorption of Carbohydrates, Proteins and Lipids.
Module 12 (3 Marks)
Module 12
12.1 Chemistry of Carbohydrates, Proteins, Lipids and Nucleic acids.
12.2 Metabolism of Carbohydrates, Proteins, Lipids, Nucleic Acids, Minerals.
Common Inborn errors and disorders of metabolism.
12.3 Vitamins and coenzymes of vitamins, Estimation of vitamins.
12.4 Nutrition-Nutritional importance and calorific values of food.
12.5 Hemoglobin-Function, Synthesis and degradation of heme, Hemoglobin
derivatives, hemoglobin Variants, Jaundice, Congenital disorders of heme
metabolism.
12.6 Porphyria, Disorders of porphyrin metabolism, Laboratory diagnosis of
porphyriasis
Module 13 (3 Marks)
Module 13
13.1 Enzymes-Classification, Co-enzymes, Co factor, Mechanism of
enzyme action, Enzyme kinetics, MM constant, Enzyme inhibition, Regulatory
enzymes.
13.2 Clinical Enzymology-Enzyme Activity Determination, End point and Kinetic
Assay. Principle and methods for the activity determination of Acid phosphatase,
Alkaline phosphatase, Aspartate transaminase, Alanine transaminase, Amylase,
Lipase, Lactate dehydrogenase, Creatinine Kinase, Glucose 6- Phosphate
Dehydrogenase, 5’ Nucleotidase, Gamma Glutamyl Transpeptidase, Choline
esterase.
13.3 Isoenzymes and its diagnostic importance in cases of MI, Liver disease,
Muscular disease.
Module 14 (1 Marks)
Module 14
14.1 Hormones- General properties and functions of hormones. Mechanism
of hormone action, Hypothalamic hormones, Pituitary hormones, Hormones of
Pancreas, Thyroid, Parathyroid, Adrenal cortex, Adrenal medulla and Gonad.
Different methods of estimation of hormones and hormone metabolites.
Module 15 (3 Marks)
Module 15
15.1 Molecular Biology- DNA replication and repair mechanism.
Transcription and Genetic code, Translation, Post translational modification,
Protein folding and protein targeting.
15.2 Molecular Biology Techniques-Recombinant DNA Technology, Blotting
techniques, PCR, FISH.
15.3 Cloning, Genomic library.
Module 16 (2 Marks)
Module 16
16.1 Urine – Composition of normal urine, Abnormal constituents
-Qualitative and Quantitative tests.
16.2 Urinary screening test for metabolic inherited disorders.
16.3 Estimation of VMA, 17 ketosteroid, 5HIAA, Oestriol from urine.
16.4 Clearance test- creatinine, urea and inulin.
16.5 CSF and other body fluids- Composition and chemical analysis of CSF,
Synovial fluid, Peritoneal, Pericardial and Amniotic fluid.
Module 17 (1 Marks)
Module 17
17.1 Gastric juice- Stomach tubes, Fractional test meal, Chemical
examination for bile pigments, blood, starch and gastric juice. Estimation of free
and total acid from gastric juice. Tubeless gastric function test.
Module 18 (1 Marks)
Module 18
18.1 Analysis of calculi- Urinary and Biliary Calculi.
Module 19 (1 Marks)
Module 19
19.1 Electrophoresis- Different methods for electrophoresis, Advantages
and disadvantages of various methods. Electrophoresis of serum protein,
hemoglobin and lipoproteins and its interpretation.
Module 20 (2 Marks)
Module 20
20.1 Chromatography- Different forms of chromatographic technique,
Applications, advantages and disadvantages of these methods.
20.2 Urine Aminogram and chromatographic separations of amino acids, sugar,
lipids, drugs and toxins.
Module 21 (2 Marks)
Module 21
21.1. Infection, Immunity, Antigens, antibodies, Immunoglobulins, Complement
system, Structure and functions of Immune systems, Immune response, Immune deficiency
diseases, Hypersensitivity, Autoimmunity, Immunology of Transplantation and malignancies.
Module 21.2 Immunological methods and related techniques-Various antigen antibody
reactions, Immunodiffusion, Immunoelectrophoresis , ELISA, Fluorescent Immunoassay and
Radioimmunoassay.
Module 22 (1 Marks)
Module 22
22.1 Biochemistry Laboratory tests- Liver function test, Kidney function test, Gastro
intestinal function test, Malabsorption studies, Pancreatic function tests, Thyroid function
tests, Gonadal function tests, Foeto placental function tests, Lipid profile, Cardiac Markers,
Tumor markers, GTT, GCT, Glycated hemoglobin.
Module 23 (1 Marks)
Module 23
23.1 Toxicology – General methods of analysis and screening tests for
common drugs used in therapy.
Module 24 (1 Marks)
Module 24
24.1 Organization and management of Clinical Biochemistry Laboratory.
Module 25 (2 Marks)
Module 25
25.1 Automation- Semi auto analyzer and Auto analyzers-Different types,
Advantages and Recent trends.
25.2 Laboratory Informatics.
Module 26 (1 Marks)
Module 26
26.1 Quality Control- Accuracy, Precision, Sensitivity, Specificity, Standard
deviation, Preanalytical variables and analytical variables. QC charts, QC sera, Internal and External Quality Control Programme.
NOTE: – It may be noted that apart from the topics detailed above, questions from other topics prescribed for the educational qualification of the post may appear in the question paper. There is no undertaking that all the topics above may be covered in the question paper.
Previous Year Questions Free Download for Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician
Laboratory Technician Grade II (SR from SC/ST)-Medical Education - 005/2018
Laboratory Technician Grade II (SR from SC/ST)-Medical Education' exam of the year 2018. The exam was held on 10th January 2018 and Question paper code was '005/2018'. Medium of question paper was in English and Question paper Booklet Alphacode was A.
1.Which river in Kerala mentioned in Kautilya’s “Arthashastra”?
A. Pampa
B. Bharathappuzha
C. Achan kovilar
D. Periyar
Answer: D
2. The first newspaper in Malayalam “Rajyasamacharam” begin in
A. Thalassery
B. Kozhikode
C. Thiruvananthapuram
D. Kannur
Answer: A
3. The author of Sanskrit work “Mukundamala” is
A. Rajashekara varma
B. Kulasekhara Alwar
C. Sthanu Ravi
D. Raja Simhan
Answer: B
4. Name the social reformer held “Kannadi prathishta” first in South India
A. Sree Narayana Guru
B. Chattambi Swamikal
C. Vaikunda Swamikal
D. Jyotirao Phule
Answer: C
5. Who is the first tarriance in Rashtrapathi Bhawan?
A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Mount Batten
C. Rajendra Prasad
D. Lord Irwin
Answer: D
6. The first child friendly police station in Kerala is
A. Chirayinkeezhu
B. Ettumannu
C. Kadavanthra
D. Harippad
Answer: C
7. Name the first editor of the Newspaper Mathrubhumi
A. P. Kesava Menon
B. Ramunni Menon
C. Kelappan
D. H. Kunhappa
Answer: A
8. Among the following, who is not related to Malayalee Memorial?
A. V. Raman Pillai
B. Palpu
C. P. Pillai
D. P. Sankara Menon
Answer: B
9. Who is the first women Judge in the High Court of India?
A. Fathima Beevi
B. Anna Chandi
C. Akkamma Cherian
D. Annie Mascreen
Answer: B
10. Wagon Tragedy is in
A. 1921 October, 10
B. 1921 August, 20
C. 1921 November, 12
D. 1921 November, 10
Answer: D
11. Who is the minister of Local Self Government in the first E.M.S Ministry 1957?
A. K. Chathan Master
B. R. Gouri Amma
C. V. Thomas
D. DAchutha Menon
Answer: A
12. The autobiography ‘Jeevithapatha’ is
A. Joseph Mundassery
B. Sachidanandan
C. Cherukad
D. Thakazhi
Answer: C
13. The magazine ‘Keli’ is related to
A. Kerala Sahithya Acadamy
B. Kerala Sahithya Pravarthaka Sahakarana Sangham
C. Kerala Sangeetha Nataka Acadamy
D. Kerala Lalithakala Acadamy
Answer: C
14. The Head Quarter of State Film Development Corporation.
A. Thiruvananthapuram
B. Eranakulam
C. Kozhikode
D. Kochi
Answer: A
15. Into how many parts, the Constitution of India has been divided?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
16. In which item P.U Chithra won the Gold medal in 2017 Asian Athletics Championship in Bhubaneshwar
A. 800 m race
B. 5000 m race
C. 100 m race
D. 1500 m race
Answer: D
17. A Constitutional bench of Supreme Court consists of
A. 7 Judges
B. 5 Judges
C. 6 Judges
D. 4 Judges
Answer: A
18. The oldest Newspaper in Malayalam is
A. Kerala Kaumudi
B. Malayala Manorama
C. Mathrubhumi
D. Deepika
Answer: D
19. World Blood Donor Day is
A. June 12
B. July 14
C. June 14
D. June 20
Answer: C
20. Name the Malayalee who addressed the presidential speech at Amaravarthi session of INC held in 1897.
A. John Mathai
B. Sir C. Sankaran Nair
C. Mannath Padmanabhan
D. M.S.
Answer: B
21. The resolution of an Electron microscope is expressed in
A. Millimeters
B. Micrometers
C. Nanometers
D. Centimeters
Answer: C
22. Which of the following is not a flammable chemical?
A. Ether
B. Xylol
C. Alcohol
D. H_2O_2
Answer: D
23. Which of the following is not a carcinogen?
A. O-toluene
B. Picric acid
C. Selenite
D. β naphthyl amine
Answer: B
24. The temperature required for many of the clinical investigations to be done in a laboratory incubator in degree Celsius is
A. 22
B. 42
C. 56
D. 37
Answer: D
25. Which of the following not comes under moist heat sterilization?
A. Hot air oven
B. Autoclave
C. Pasteurization
D. Tyndalisation
Answer: A
26. Disposable plastics are sterilized by
A. Alcohol
B. Ethylene oxide
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Chlorine
Answer: B
27. A normal solution contains
A. Gram equivalent weight per litre
B. Molecular weight of solute in grams per litre
C. Weight per unit volume
D. None of the above
Answer: A
28. Average urine output of an adult per day
A. 30 – 60 ml
B. 500 – 600 ml
C. 800 – 1400 ml
D. 1000 – 2000 ml
Answer: D
29. Which of the following is not found in normal urine?
A. Creatinine
B. Uric acid
C. RBC
D. Glucose
Answer: C
30. Which one of the following is used to test ketone bodies?
A. Rothera's test
B. Diazo test
C. Benzedene test
D. Ehrlich's test
Answer: A
31. Normal VMA level is
A. Upto 9 mg/24 hour
B. 8 – 18 mg/24 hour
C. 2 – 0.5 gm/24 hour urine
D. 100 – 250 mg/24 hour
Answer: A
32. Normal GFR rate is
A. 500 – 800 ml/unit
B. 1000 – 1500 ml/unit
C. 100 – 130 ml/unit
D. None of the above
Answer: C
33. Bloody stool with pus and mucous seen in the following condition except
A. Ulcerative colitis
B.Mucous colitis
C. Bacilliary dysentery
D. Carcinoma of colon
Answer: B
34. In Amoebiasis, the cyst of Entamoeba histolytica identified from
A. Liver abscess
B. Stool
C. Lung abscess
D. All the above
Answer: B
35. Which of the following parasite has no cystic stage?
A. Giardia lamblia
B. Balantidium coli
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. histolytica
Answer: C
36. Multiple ring forms are seen in which type of malaria?
A. Plasmodium malariae
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium ovale
Answer: C
37. LD bodies are seen in the Reticulo endothelial system of
A. Human
B. Ruduvad bug
C. Tsetse fly
D. Sand fly
Answer: A
38. Which of the following parasitic ova is not bile stained?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Ancylostoma duodenale
C. Trichuris trichura
D.Tinea saginata
Answer: B
39. The causative agent of “Colabar swelling”
A. bancrofti
B. Brugia malayi
C. Loa loa
D. Oncocercus volvulus
Answer: C
40. Night blood sample is collected for the diagnosis of
A. Malaria
B. Filaria
C. Trypanosoma
D. Leishmania
Answer: B
41. Casoni’s test is used for the diagnosis of
A. Hydatid disease
B. Leishmaniasis
C. Malaria
D. Filaria
Answer: A
42. Which one of the parasitic ova seen in urine?
A. Schistosoma haematobium
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Paragonimus westermani
D. Clonorchis sinensis
Answer: A
43. The ratio of anti-coagulant and blood used for ESR test is
A. 1 : 2
B. 1 : 4
C. 1 : 8
D. 1 : 16
Answer: B
44. Normal value of haemoglobin for an adult
A. 4 – 6 gm%
B. 6 – 8 gm%
C. 8 – 10 gm%
D. 12 – 15 gm%
Answer: D
45. Normal platelet count is
A. 4 – 5 million/cmm
B. 4000 – 11000/cmm
C. 5 – 3.5 lakhs/cmm
D. 200/cmm
Answer: C
46.Glass wares containing organic matter are treated with
A. 5% HCl
B. 2% detergent
C. 2% phenol
D. Potassium dichromate
Answer: D
47. Which of the following is not a Romanowsky stain?
A. Leishman stain
B. Wright stain
C. Giemsa stain
D. Grams stain
Answer: D
48. The main site of haemopoiesis takes place in
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Bone marrow
D. Lymphoid tissue
Answer: C
49. Which of the following condition, the RBCs are microcytic & hypochromic
A. Pernicious anaemia
B. Haemolytic anaemia
C. Iron deficiency anaemia
D. Megaloblastic anaemia
Answer: C
50. Eosinophilia seen in
A. Allergic conditions
B. Parasitic infection
C. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
D. All the above
Answer: D
51. LE cells are not seen in the following condition:
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B.Systemic lupus erythematosus
C.Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Collagen disorders
Answer: A
52. Which of the following condition shows Bence-Jones protein in urine?
A. Acute myeloid Leukemia
B. Malignant lymphoma
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Chronic myeloid Leukemia
Answer: C
53. APTT increased in the following condition:
A. Haemophilia
B. Vitamin K deficiency
C. Liver diseases
D. All the above
Answer: D
54. ABO grouping discovered by
A. Robert Koch
B. Karl Landsteiner
C. Paul Ehrlich
D. Antony Van Levenhoek
Answer: B
55. In a blood bank CPD anti-coagulated blood can be stored at 2 – 8 degree Celsius for
A. 2 days
B. 14 days
C. 28 days
D. 45 days
Answer: C
56. CSF protein fractions are evaluated by
A. Colloidal gold test
B. Pandy’s test
C. Rose Jone’s test
D. Protein electrophoresis
Answer: A
57. In pregnancy, the peak level of HCG in urine seen at
A. 4 weeks of gestation
B. 6 weeks of gestation
C. 10 weeks of gestation
D. 14 weeks of gestation
Answer: C
58. Cushing syndrome is due to
A. excess production of thyroid hormone
B. excess production of Glucocorticoides
C. excess production of FSH
D.excess production of growth hormone
Answer: B
59 In obstructive jaundice, which of the following serum enzyme level elevated
A. SGOT
B. SGPT
C. ALP
D. All the above
Answer: D
60. Normal fasting blood glucose level is
A. 50 – 80 mg/dl
B. 0 – 110 mg/dl
C. 120 – 160 mg/dl
D. 180 – 220 mg/dl
Answer: B
61. Serum uric acid level increased in
A. Gout
B. Renal failure
C. Addison’s disease
D. Rickets
Answer: A
62. Which of the following elevated enzyme level is not a marker of myocardial infarction?
A. SGOT
B. SGPT
C. LDH
D. Creatine kinase
Answer: B
63. Increased level of PCO2 seen in
A. Hypoxia
B. Obstructive lung disease
C. Polycythemi
D. Anaemia
Answer: B
64.TORCH infections are best analysed by
A. Capture ELISA
B. Competitive ELISA
C. Immuno capture ELISA
D. Streptavidin-Biotin ELISA
Answer: C
65. The best diagnostic assay for infections and autoimmune disease parameters by
A. EIA
B. RIA
C. Fluorescence immuno assay
D. Chemiluminescence assay
Answer: D
66. Which of the following steps are included in a PCR cycle?
A. Denaturation
B. Annealing
C. Extension
D. All the above
Answer: D
67. Which of the following serological test is specific test for Syphilis?
A. TPHA
B. RPR
C. TRUST
D. VDRL
Answer: A
68. WIDAL test is for the serological diagnosis of
A. Enteric fever
B. Typhoid fever
C. Para typhoid fever
D. Brucellosis
Answer: A
69. The vector which transmit Dengue fever
A. Culex mosquito
B. Anophilus mosquito
C. Aedes mosquito
D. Mansonia mosquito
Answer: C
70. Which of the following is not a rapid diagnostic test?
A. Dengue check WB
B. Leptockeck WB
C. PARA MAX-3
D.Brucel-RB
Answer: D
71. Significant titre of ASO test by latex agglutination is
A. >200 IU/ml
B. <200 IU/ml
C. >10 IU/ml
D. <10 IU/ml
Answer: A
72. Route of transmission of Hepatitis A virus is by
A. Contaminated food and water
B. Blood transfusion
C. Sexual contact
D. Air
Answer: A
73. Opportunistic infections associated with AIDS includes
A. Candidiasis
B. Cryptococcosis
C. Cryptosporidiosis
D. All the above
Answer: D
74. Which of the following fixative contains picric acid?
A. Bouin’s fluid
B. Carnoy’s fluid
C. Zenker’s fluid
D. Lugol’s solution
Answer: A
75. Frozen sections are obtained from
A. Histokinate
B. Cryostat
C. Microtome
D. None of the above
Answer: B
76. The stain used to detect glycogen by
A. Masson Fontana stain
B. Mucicarmine
C. PAS
D. H and E stain
Answer: C
77. The most common staining technique used in cytology is
A. Giemsa stain
B. Papani colaou stain
C. H and E stain
D. Shorr’s stain
Answer: B
78. Tubercle bacillae identified by
A. Robert Koch
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Edward Jenner
D. Joseph Lister
Answer: A
79. Ziehl - Neelsen stain is used for demonstration of
A. Streptococci
B. Anthrax Bacilli
C. Mycobacteria
D. Spirochaetes
Answer: C
80. Triple sugar iron agar contains
A. Glucose, Maltose, Sucrose
B. Glucose, Mannitol, Sucrose
C. Glucose, Lactose, Sucrose
D. Glucose, Lactose, Maltose
Answer: C
81. Blood agar is
A. Enriched media
B. Enrichment media
C. Selective media
D. Differential media
Answer: A
82. RCM is used for the primary cultivation of
A. Tubercle bacilli
B. Clostridium Perfringens
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Haemophilus
Answer: B
83. Which of the following sensitivity test is used to diagnose Group A Streptococci isolate
A. Novobiosin
B. Optochin
C. Bacitracin
D. Polymixin
Answer: C
- Elek’s test is used for the invitro toxigenicity of
- Coryne bacteria diphtheriae
- Haemophilus influenzae
- Group B Streptococcus
- Clostridium Perfringens
Answer: A
85. Which of the following bacteria shows swarming growth?
A. Salmonella
B. Shigella
C. Pesudomonas
D. Proteus
Answer: D
86. Example of dimorphic fungi
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Histoplasma Capsulatum
C. Candida albicans
D. Nocardia
Answer: B
87. Mantoux test is for the diagnosis of
A. Tuberculosis
B. Diphtheria
C. Echinococcus
D. Toxoplasma
Answer: A
89. Negative staining is used for the demonstration of
A. Capsule
B. Flagella
C. Cell wall
D. None of the above
Answer: A
89. The basic principle behind spectrophotometer is
A. Beer’s law
B. Lambert’s law
C. Beer-Lambert law
D. None of the above
Answer: C
90. Which of the following Immunoglobulin can cross the placenta
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
Answer: A
91. Which of the following condition shows 48XXY chromosomes?
A. Down syndrome
B. Turner’s syndrome
C. Klinefelter’s syndrome
D. All the above
Answer: C
92. Negri bodies are demonstrated for the diagnosis of
A. Hepatitis
B. HIV
C. Polio
D. Rabies
Answer: D
93. Electrophoretic separation of major protein is known as
A. Western blotting
B. Southern blotting
C. Northern blotting
D. None of the above
Answer: A
94. Which of the following is non-nucleic acid based diagnostic method?
A. PCR
B. LCR
C. RFLP
D. GLC
Answer: D
95. Monoclonal antibodies are produced from
A. Myeloma cells
B. Lymphoma cells
C. Hybridoma cells
D. All the above
Answer: C
96. Which of the following is not an automated culture system?
A. BACTEC
B. BaCT/ALERT
C. ESP system
D. Casteneda method
Answer: D
97. Osmotic fragility test is used for the diagnosis of
A. Sickle cell anaemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Spherocytosis
D. Megaloblastic anaemia
Answer: C
98. Haemolytic disease of newborn is due to
A. ABO incompatibility
B. Rh incompatibility
C. Leucocyte incompatibility
D. None of the above
Answer: B
99. Which of the following automated system is introduced recently?
A. Continuous flow analyser
B. Discrete analyser
C. Centrifugal analyser
D. None of the above
Answer: C
100. Biuret method is used for determination of
A. Protein
B. Sugar
C. Urea
D. Cholesterol
Answer: A
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FAQ for Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician Exam
1. What is the Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician Exam?
The Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician Exam is a competitive exam conducted by the Kerala Public Service Commission (PSC) to recruit lab technicians for the Department of Medical Education (DME). Successful candidates work in government medical colleges and teaching hospitals in Kerala.
2. What are the eligibility criteria for the Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician Exam?
Candidates must have a diploma or degree in Medical Laboratory Technology (MLT) from a recognized institution. Registration with the Kerala Paramedical Council may also be required, and the typical age range is between 18 and 36 years, with age relaxations for certain categories.
3. What topics are covered in the Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician syllabus?
The syllabus includes subjects such as microbiology, biochemistry, pathology, hematology, lab safety, and quality control practices. These areas are essential for lab technician roles in medical education institutions.
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Eduooz Academy offers a targeted online coaching program with expert faculty, comprehensive syllabus coverage, regular mock tests, and study materials. Our course is specifically designed to prepare students for the Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician Exam.
5. What study materials are provided in Eduooz Academy’s coaching program?
We provide topic-specific study materials, including notes, guides, and recorded sessions. These resources cover the exam syllabus in detail, helping students grasp important concepts and prepare effectively.
6. Are there mock tests available for the Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician Exam?
Yes, Eduooz Academy offers regular mock tests and practice papers that simulate the Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician exam format. These tests help students become familiar with the exam pattern, improve time management, and track their progress.
7. How long does it take to complete the coaching program for the Kerala DME PSC Lab Technician Exam?
The duration of the program varies depending on the individual’s pace and study schedule. Eduooz Academy offers flexible online learning options, allowing students to progress through the course at their own speed.
8. What is the job role and scope of a DME Lab Technician in Kerala?
DME Lab Technicians in Kerala work in government medical colleges and teaching hospitals, conducting diagnostic tests, supporting medical education, and ensuring lab safety and quality control. This role offers job stability, benefits, and career growth opportunities within the healthcare sector.
9. Can I access recorded sessions if I miss a live class?
Yes, Eduooz Academy provides access to recorded sessions for all live classes, allowing students to review lessons at their convenience. This feature ensures flexibility for students who may miss a class or need additional review.
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